adamlett
today at 10:51 AM
Possibly, but what we think of as land ownership today â land as a commodity that can be freely bought and sold, and as something that gives the owner near-total control over how itâs used â is actually a fairly recent development.
In feudal Europe, land could only be âownedâ by a lord, and even then it was bound up in obligations both to their superiors and to the peasants working it. There were all sorts of customary rights layered on top: in Denmark, for example, nobles had a monopoly on hunting and timber in their forests, but peasants still had rights to gather firewood, berries, nuts, mushrooms, and so on.
Village fields were also often organized under the open-field system, where land was divided into strips. Each household got a mix of good and poor soil, and in some places those strips were even periodically reallocated to keep things fair. Itâs a very different picture from modern private property.